First of all, the premise that the infant baptizers hold to, is flawed. Baptism and circumcision are not the same thing. No reasonable person could say that the intention of circumcision was to make the way for baptism. Not even the Judiazers in the New Testament believed that. The difficulty with discussing baby baptism with someone who holds to that teaching is it’s not just a matter of the way they look at baptism, but the way they read the bible.
Those that hold to covenant theology read the bible through the glasses of their theology. Notice the following points made by J.I Packer concerning covenant theology.
“First, the gospel of God is not properly understood till it is viewed within a covenantal frame. Second, the Word of God is not properly understood till it is viewed within a covenantal frame. Third, the reality of God is not properly understood till it is viewed within a covenantal frame.”In other words, if you do not first understand this theological system, you can’t properly know God, His word, or the gospel.
Those that read the bible and believe what it says are flawed, apparently, due to their lack of understanding the ‘covenantal frame’. Anyone can clearly see that baptism and circumcision are not the same thing. The only similarity that they share is the fact that they are tokens. They are different in their manner, candidates, purpose and meaning. Baptism is an act of obedience, whereas circumcision was required by the law. Baptism was given only to professed believers whereas circumcision was given to male Jews and Jewish citizens. Baptism is the answer to a good conscience given to one who is a child of God whereas circumcision was given so the boy may gain inheritance as a Jewish citizen, and not be cut off from their family. All believers are required to be baptized, but only males can be circumcised. Baptism signifies what God DID do for that person, being buried with Christ and raising in newness of life, to which an infant cannot declare, while circumcision shows what a Jew MUST be to be saved, circumcised in heart, which could be given to an infant in symbol. It is not necessary to be baptized to be saved, but it was necessary for one to be circumcised to be a citizen of Israel. So just a brief look at the two tokens, it is plain to anyone who wants to see it that baptism and circumcision are not the same thing, and anyone who tries is attempting to justify their belief by wresting the scripture. If baptism is a seal, and took the place of circumcision for the same purpose, then circumcision was a picture of a picture or a sign of a sign. God didn’t give a picture of a picture of the work of Christ. Circumcision was a token, so is baptism, but one didn’t replace the other. As J.R Graves stated “A SHADOW DOES NOT CAST A SHADOW!”
Another problem with baby baptism view of combining circumcision with baptism is not only does it contradict the bible, but you either have to believe in baptismal regeration, or contradict yourself. Notice the Westminster Confession of Faith, Chapter 28 of Baptism.
1. Baptism is a sacrament of the NT, ordained by Jesus Christ, not only for the solemn admission of the party baptized into the visible Church, but also to be unto him a sign and seal of the covenant of grace, of his ingrafting into Christ, of regeneration, of remission of sins, and of his giving up unto God, through Jesus Christ, to walk in newness of life: which sacrament is, by Christ's own appointment, to be continued in his Church until the end of the world. 3. Not only those that do actually profess faith in and obedience unto Christ, but also the infants of one or both believing parents are to be baptized.5. Although it be a great sin to contemn or neglect this ordinance, yet grace and salvation are not so inseparably annexed unto it, as that no person can be regenerated or saved without it, or that all that are baptized are undoubtedly regenerated.
Do you see the contradiction? First it is a sign and seal of regeneration and the remission of sins, but then it is given to infants. A walk in newness of life in his church, but then given to babies? There is one meaning of baptism for the baby, another meaning for the adult, which makes two baptism.
The efficacy (Power to produce effects; production to the effect intended definition inserted by author, dpn)of baptism is not tied to that moment of time wherein it is administered; yet, notwithstanding, by the right use of this ordinance the grace promised is not only offered, but really exhibited (shown, displayed, when AT THE TIME OF BAPTISM, dpn) and conferred (Given; imparted; bestowed, dpn) by the Holy Ghost, to such whether of age or infants as that grace belongeth unto, according to the counsel of God's own will, in his appointed time.
There is really no way around this contradiction. Those that hold to baby baptism and this confession say, in their own words, there is grace imparted and shown to the recipient of that baptism and that by baptizing, God will save them, but then go on to speak of justification by faith.
Douglas Newell IV
11 comments:
Something for Baptists and evangelicals to think about: the Baptist doctrine of the "Age of Accountability" is nowhere to be found in the New Testament.
Isn't it strange that God provided a means for the children of his chosen people in the Old Testament to be part of his Covenant promises but is completely silent about the issue in the New Testament?
Jesus seemed to really love the little children but then turns around and never mentions how a Christian parent can be assured that if something dreadful happens to their child, that they will see that child again in heaven.
If the Baptist doctrine of adult-only salvation is correct...that means that God left our children in spiritual limbo. One must pray to God that little Johnnie accepts Christ the very minute he reaches the Age of Accountability, because if something were to happen to him, he would be lost and doomed to hell.
Do you really think that our loving Lord and Savior would do that to Christian parents??
Dear Christian parents: bring your little children to Jesus! He wants to save them just as much as he wants to save adults! Bring your little children and babies to the waters of Holy Baptism and let Jesus SAVE them!
The unscriptural "Age of Accountability" is the desperate attempt to plug the big "hole" in the Baptist doctrine of Adult-only Salvation/Justification: how does
Jesus save our babies and toddlers?
Gary
http://www.lutherwasnotbornagain.com
Gary,
The Bible teaches that we are justified by faith, both Old and New Testaments.
God is sovereign in salvation and is free to save whom He chooses. He is free to save an adult and is free to have mercy on an infant. We are saved by grace, through faith, not by the works of baptism.
You are absolutely correct, we are saved by faith.
The real question is this: Is faith something that the sinner produces himself or is faith a completely FREE gift from God?
If the only way that a sinner can obtain faith is by making a free-will decision to believe that is not free. That is a work.
If the true definition of faith is that God can give it freely, without any strings attached, whenever he chooses, to whomever he chooses.
The simple plain, reading of the New Testament clearly states that God saves in two situations: when a sinner hears the Gospel and God uses the Gospel to quicken his soul causing him to believe and be saved AND God saves in the waters of Baptism.
Baptists and evangelicals refuse to believe both, they only believe God saves in the first situation. Read your Bible without you denominationally colored glasses and you will see very clearly that God also saves in baptism...WATER baptism.
The is no record of any Hebrew child having a conversion experience upon reaching an "Age of Accountability" and it is very interesting that there is no account in the NT of any child of Christian parents "accepting Christ" and then being baptized.
The NT was written over a period of approximately 30 years after Christ's death. So there is a period of 60 years and not one mention of the adult baptism of a child of Christian parents. Not even Timothy, who the Bible says was raised learning the Scriptures. Why doesn't that passage say, "He was raised learning the Scriptures and when he was ten years old he accepted Christ and was baptized?
It doesn't because Timothy was already considered a Christian, even as a child. Now had did that happen? Did God give Timothy the Holy Ghost as he did John the Baptist??
God has always included our babies and toddlers in the salvation of households. It isn't specifically mentioned in the NT because it was assumed that everyone understood that the conversion process for households of the OT continued into the NT.
There is NO historical record of ANY early Christian believing otherwise!
Hi Gary,
I would love to interact with you, if you are going to discuss my actual position, rather than assuming what I believe and then dismantling that. Some call it a straw man. So if you would like for me to continue, you are going to have to stop correcting a position I do not have and take the time to understand what I believe. I am a Calvinist, and this might help. http://www.spurgeon.org/~phil/creeds/nh_conf.htm
The sinner is unwilling and unable to come to Christ. The “free-will” of a sinner is truly the Bondage of the Will, as someone once wrote a book on that very subject - you may be familiar. I am not an Arminian, I do not call people to accept Christ or make a decision. I call men to repent of their sins, trust in Christ, the perfect saviour and receive Him. I know that a man must be born again from above, quickened from death unto life by the Holy Spirit.
That said, I hope to continue the discussion, but I hope I don’t have to spend the first explaining that you have me mistaken for someone else.
You asked me if “The real question is this: Is faith something that the sinner produces himself or is faith a completely FREE gift from God?”
My answer? A complete free gift from God. Free from works, free from decisions, free from the work of baptism.
Here is the problem. You want to carry over circumcision from the OT to the New, assuming circumcision saved in the Old Testament.
Circumcision in the New Testament is widely and thoroughly condemned and pointed to as useless. But in all those instances, why did Paul never instruct the Jewish believers to switch from circumcision to baptism?
Why not in Romans, when Paul made clear that Abraham was saved by faith prior to circumcision and that it was a sign of the righteousness he ALREADY HAD through faith?
What about in I Corinthians when Paul said circumcision is nothing, why did he not tell them that baptism had replaced it? Especially when there was the mixed congregation of Jews and Gentiles that was causing an issue?
What about in Galatians when Paul was battling the Judaizers who were preaching circumcision for salvation, why did Paul not correct them by saying it was replaced by Baptism?
Or the other places where baptism is instructed, why not show the link? You are basing your position on assumptions and arguments from silence.
In Christ,
Doug
Titus 3:5 ESV
he saved us, not because of works done by us in righteousness, but according to his own mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewal of the Holy Spirit,
Colossians 2:11-13 ESV
In him also you were circumcised with a circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ, 12 having been buried with him in baptism, in which you were also raised with him through faith in the powerful working of God, who raised him from the dead. 13 And you, who were dead in your trespasses and the uncircumcision of your flesh, God made alive together with him, having forgiven us all our trespasses,
The only way one can read that passage and not see that baptism is the replacement of circumcision is to read into the passage words that are not there. Baptism means WATER baptism unless God makes very clearly he is speaking of another type of baptism.
That is the problem with Baptist/evangelical theology: you only believe the Bible literally when it fits your doctrine. When it doesn't, you change God's Word to say something he did not say.
Why not read and believe ALL of God's Word literally unless God makes it VERY clear in the passage that he is speaking symbolically/metaphorically?
1 Peter 3:20-21 ESV
"because[a] they formerly did not obey, when God's patience waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through water. 21 Baptism, which corresponds to this, now saves you, not as a removal of dirt from the body but as an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ"
Read this verse literally and what does it say: Baptism saves us. Period.
Sit down. Read the entire New Testament. Read it literally unless God is VERY clear that he is not speaking literally. What will you end up with: God forgives sins in baptism. God saves in baptism. They only way to believe it doesn't is to establish your doctrine FIRST...and then try to interpret God's words to fit your doctrine.
God doesn't need you help to explain what he was trying to say. He is very clear...if you read the Bible literally.
Gary,
I am going to answer your objections and most likely do it in a new blog post, to bump this up to the front of the blog. I’ll be sure to let you know here as well and link to this article. Stay tuned.
Romans 6:1-5 (ESV)
6 What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that grace may abound? 2 By no means! How can we who died to sin still live in it? 3 Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death? 4 We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life.
5 For if we have been united with him in a death like his, we shall certainly be united with him in a resurrection like his.
Summary:
1. Paul asks if we Christians should sin to make God's grace abound.
2. "Of course not!" he replies to his own question.
3. Addressing those who have been baptized into Christ (Christians), he asks, "Don't you know that you were baptized into Christ's death? All who are Christians were buried with Christ by baptism into death in order that we too may walk in newness of life (the new life brought by Christ's resurrection).
It is interesting to note that as far as I know, this is the first passage of Scripture which occurs after the story of the resurrection, that Christians today debate whether or not the "baptism" mentioned in the passage means a spiritual baptism or a water baptism. There is never any doubt in the Book of Acts.
Let's look at it more closely. If you have been following this series of Baptism passages, you have seen that ever since Christ exhorted his disciples to baptize all nations just prior to his ascension into heaven, every passage of Holy Scripture has been very clear in distinguishing a "Baptism of the Holy Spirit" and water baptism. Whenever the "Baptism of the Holy Spirit" is discussed it is always referred to by its entire name. It is never referred to as just "baptism". In the book of Acts, if the word "baptism" or "baptized" is used, it is very clear that the passage is referring to water baptism.
So why would God change his pattern now? Yes, it is true that God is speaking through a different writer (Paul) in Romans, rather than Luke in Acts, but it is still God speaking. Why would he suddenly start referring to the Baptism of the Holy Spirit with just the word "baptism"?
If this passage in Romans is referring to the "Baptism of the Holy Spirit" isn't it odd that in some of the conversions mentioned by Luke in Acts, the "Baptism of the Holy Spirit" doesn't occur until a period of time AFTER the person believes, and sometimes not until they have been baptized, AND sometimes not until an apostle or disciple has laid his hands on them.
Do Baptists and evangelicals really believe that Christians can be "baptized into Christ's death" at any time other than when the sinner believes/makes a decision for Christ? For Baptists and evangelicals to be consistent about reading this verse as a Baptism of the Holy Spirit, wouldn't they then also have to admit that not everyone receives the Holy Spirit when they believe? Some Christians receive the Holy Spirit at a later time??
Or are Baptists and evangelicals saying there is now a THIRD baptism in the post-resurrection era? A spiritual baptism that is not the Baptism of the Holy Spirit and is also not water baptism? Is there any Scriptural basis for this "third baptism"?
Gary
Luther, Baptists, and Evangelicals
While reading through the Epistle to the Romans I came across this statement in my Lutheran Study Bible (I have added a few additional comments):
"The wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23)
The fact that children die shows that they are subject to the consequences of sin just like adults. If children are not held responsible by God for the Original Sin inherited from their Grandfather Adam, they would never die until they reach an Age of Accountability, when "their eyes are opened to the knowledge of Good and Evil".
But the Bible never mentions an age of accountability. Instead, it teaches that "the whole world (is) held accountable to God" (Romans 3:19), Psalms 51:5, Eph. 2:3.
Just because something doesn't seem fair, doesn't mean it is not true. As Paul says in Romans, who are we the created to question the Creator.
All human beings, including infants, are born sinners and are in need of a Savior to redeem them from original sin and the penalty of that sin: death...both physical and spiritual.
Gary
Luther, Baptists, and Evangelicals
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